Jesus and the Divine Name

Righteous Father, the world has, indeed, not come to know you; but I have come to know you, and these have come to know that you sent me forth. And I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them and I in union with them.”- John 17:25,26

On the night prior to his execution Jesus prayed those words. Taken as a whole they are a beautiful reminder of the way that we can come to know the Father through the Son. This thought is detailed in John chapter 14. Verse 6 well sumarizes it, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me."

However the purpose of this discussion is to key in on Jesus expression, "I have made your name known to them and will make it known".

A Brief History of the Divine Name

God's Name appears thousands of times in the Hebrew Scriptures. In the original Hebrew text it appears as four consonants, commonly called the the Tetragrammaton -- YHWH when transliterated into English. In the original Hebrew writings vowels were not used and it was up to the reader to supply the vowel sounds.

Sometime after the Babylonian exile and before Jesus came to earth (during Alexander the Great's reign according to Rabbinic tradition) God's Name was held to be too sacred to pronounce and it dropped out of common usage. The Hebrew word Adonai, or Lord, was used as substitution for the name of God.

Thereafter the original Divine Name was only pronounced once a year by the High Priest on the Day of Atonement. Pronoucing God's Name outside these times carried severe penalties. It was considered blasphemy and any who pronounced it were subject to death by stoning.

With the destruction of the temple in 70AD the priestly services were forcibly discontinued and the Divine Name was no longer invoked. Thus overtime the original pronunciation of the Name was lost with only the four consonants of the Tetragrammaton remaining in the Scriptures as a clue to the original pronunciation.

Eventually the Tetragrammaton was removed from the common Greek translation of the Bible called the Septuagint where it was generally replaced with the Greek word Kyrious or Lord. This translation tradition has carried over to English Bibles where God's Name is rendered as The LORD.

There is evidence that in the early Christian communities the Name of God still remained in the Hebrew writings. The oldest fragments of the Greek Septuagint contain the Hebrew Tetragrammaton. The Hebrew Tetragrammaton appears in the Christian Scholar Origen's Hexapla - a parallel version of the Hebrew Scriptures in six versions. Additionally Jerome writing in the late fourth century commented that the name of God was still around in certain Greek volumes.

What about the New Testament? The Christian Greek Scriptures contain numerous references to the Hebrew Scriptures. For the most part these citations suggest the Septuagint as the source material. In the available texts of the Greek Scriptures we find the Greek word Kyrious, or Lord, used as a substitution.

However there is one interesting text available that suggests the early use of the Divine Name in Matthew's Gospel. Christian tradition has it that Matthew was originally written in the "Hebrew tongue (Hebrew or possibly Aramaic) as testified to by Papias, Irenaeus, Origen, Eusebius, and Jerome.

In Shem-Tob's Hebrew Matthew the Divine Name appears twenty times as "The Name". Use of "The Name" is not limited to just scriptural citations where the Tetragrammaton appeared. It also is used in phrases such as the "the House of The Name" and "an angel of The Name". Additionally it is used when scriptures are introduced, "All this was to complete what was written by the prophet according to The Name". There is debate as to whether or not Shem-Tob's Hebrew Matthew represents the original Hebrew version of Matthew. However the appearance of "The Name" in the text suggests that Shem-Tob's Matthew may have roots with an early pre-Greek version.

Did Jesus Use The Divine Name?

While there are no explicit references to Jesus uttering The Name in the Greek Scriptures there are hints and suggestions that he probably did so.

In the Greek Scriptures Jesus referred to God as Father and Abba. However he often made reference to God's "name". From these we can see that God's Name was very important to Jesus and essential to his ministry.

The Lord's prayer begins, "Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified." Matthew 6:9

"Father, glorify your name." John 12:28

At John 17:6,26 Jesus prays, "I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world ... I have made your name known to them."

"I have come in the name of my Father" John 5:43

These scriptures do much to suggest that Jesus made use of God's Name. However further scriptural proof is found in the charge that was used to condemn Jesus to death, namely, blasphemy. From a legal standpoint, blapshemy was pronouncing the Tetragrammaton for some forbidden purpose. The fact that Jesus was declared guilty of blasphemy strongly appeals to the idea that he used it in some fashion.

In a Jewish retelling of the gospel account Toledot Yeshu it is stated that Jesus performed wonders by abusing the powers of God's name. Further in the Talmudic Sanhedrin is found an account of Balaam, which later Jewish interpreters feel is a codified name for Jesus. Regarding Balaam Rabbi Shimon ben Lakish says, "Woe to him who makes him to live with the name of God." Some understand this to mean that Balaam resurrected himself by pronouncing the ineffable name of God.

Granted these Jewish works were written with the intent of smearing Jesus however the Bible does seem to harmonize with the idea that Jesus did use the Name of God, that he peformed miracles in the Name of God, and that he was charged with blasphemy because of it.

First we consider Jesus words at John 10:25 that "The works that I am doing in the name of my Father testify to me."

So here Jesus says that he is performing miraculous works in the name of his Father. Now we may feel that when he says he is doing something in the name of his Father it is only in a representative sense that his works had the backing of his Father. However there seems to more to this account as we pick up at John 10:31-38.

"Once more the Jews lifted up stones to stone him. Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to YOU many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are YOU stoning me?” The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy, even because you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “YOU are gods”’? If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came, and yet the Scripture cannot be nullified, do YOU say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son? If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me. But if I am doing them, even though YOU do not believe me, believe the works, in order that YOU may come to know and may continue knowing that the Father is in union with me and I am in union with the Father.”

Now we consider that when the Jews attempt to stone Jesus he asks them if they are stoning him in response to his works and they say they are stoning him for blasphemy. Once again we call to mind that strictly speaking blasphemy was uttering God's Name for a forbidden purpose.

If it does prove to be true that Jesus made use of the Divine Name when working miracles the egnimatic account of Jesus accusing the Scribes blapheming against the Holy Spirit takes a greater meaning. We read in Mark 3:22,28-30

Also, the scribes that came down from Jerusalem were saying: “He has Beelzebub, and he expels the demons by means of the ruler of the demons.” ... Truly I say to YOU that all things will be forgiven the sons of men, no matter what sins and blasphemies they blasphemously commit. However, whoever blasphemes against the holy spirit has no forgiveness forever, but is guilty of everlasting sin.” This, because they were saying: “He has an unclean spirit.”

If we imagine that Jesus was expelling demons by means of God's Name and the scribes took offense and said that Jesus was instead expelling demons by means of the ruler of the demons then they would be in effect calling God, Satan. Furthermore if he was being accused of blasphemy for using God's Name when expelling demons he is here turning it around and saying that Scribes are the ones who are really committing the blasphemy, first by denying the power of God and second by saying that it orginates with the Devil.

Another interesting account where Jesus is charged with blasphemy in connection with performing miracles is at Mark 2:5-7 which reads:

"And when Jesus saw their faith he said to the paralytic: “Child, your sins are forgiven.” Now there were some of the scribes there, sitting and reasoning in their hearts: “Why is this man talking in this manner? He is blaspheming. Who can forgive sins except one, God?"

Earlier on we spoke the only occasions in Jesus day where the Divine Name was allowed to be spoken and that was on the Day of Atonement - the ceremonial day linked with the annual atoning of sins for the people. On that day the High Priest presided over the offerings and spoke the ieneffible Divine Name after each offering. Hence in Jesus' day the Divine Name was specifically linked with the forgiveness of sins. Indeed only in this connection and on this one day of the year was it spoken.

The simplest straight forward meaning to this account is that by forgiving sins the scribes felt that Jesus was making himself God. However once again if it holds that blasphemy was making use of the Divine Name then we have to consider whether or not Jesus made use of The Name in connection with forgiving sins and healing the paralytic.

In Mark is found another intriguing incident. Mark 11 & 12 records Jesus' run-ins with the religious teachers of Judea who are trying to trap him wih their questionings. The focus of the narration is on Jesus successfully overturning these tricks with his wisdom, first to the priests & scribes (11:27-32), then the Pharisees and party of Herod (12:13-17), and then the Sadducees (12:18-27). Our specific focus is on the account of the priests & scribes found at Mark 11:27-32.

And they came again to Jerusalem. And as he was walking in the temple, the chief priests and the scribes and the older men came to him and began to say to him: “By what authority do you do these things? or who gave you this authority to do these things?” Jesus said to them: “I will ask you one question. you answer me, and I will also tell you by what authority I do these things. Was the baptism by John from heaven or from men? Answer me.” So they began to reason among themselves, saying: “If we say, ‘From heaven,’ he will say, ‘Why is it, therefore, you did not believe him?’ But dare we say, ‘From men’?”—They were in fear of the crowd, for these all held that John had really been a prophet. Well, in reply to Jesus they said: “We do not know.” And Jesus said to them: “Neither am I telling you by what authority I do these things.”

Now what we have to consider is what kind of damning response did the priests and scribes wish to solicit from Jesus and why did Jesus not give them a straight answer. As we considered previously there is the idea that Jesus healed and forgave sins by use of the Divine Name. So when the priests and scribes asked Jesus by whose authority did he do those things where they trying to get him to commit "blasphemy" by uttering the Divine Name? It seems quite possible.

Now for the sake of completing this study I would like to look at John 8:58,59.

"Jesus said to them, "Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am" So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple."

When reading this account we have to ask what was it that caused the Jews to attempt to stone Jesus. John 8:58 finishes up a lengthy passage where Jesus judges the Jews in no uncertain terms calling them among other things liars. So perhaps they were so angry with Jesus words that they attempted to physically attack him. That is certainly feasible.

Alternatively we can consider whether or not it was Jesus using the phrase "I AM" as a reference to the Name of God as found in Exodus 3:14 and since this was perceived as blasphemy they attempted to stone him. What we have at John 8:58 is a Greek translation of what Jesus originally spoke in Aramaic. Thus we can't be sure of whether or not Jesus did refer to the Divine Name in his expression and John chose the equivalent Septuagint phrasing of the Name recorded in Exodus 3:14.

With this in mind we consider Jesus arrest as recorded in John 18:4-6

"Then Jesus, knowing all that was to happen to him, came forward and asked the, "Whom are you looking for?" They answered, "Jesus of Nazareth." Jesus replied, "I am he." When Jesus said to them, "I am" they stepped back and fell to the ground."

We have to consider what was it about Jesus expression, "I am" that literally caused these men to fall to the ground? It doesn't seem likely that they were so stunned by Jesus forthrightness that they fell to the ground. If we do interpret this as Jesus saying God's Name then the reaction of the men and their falling to the ground seems very likely.

Continuing to Jesus' trial as recorded at Mark 14:61-63:

"Again the high priest began to question him and said to him: “Are you the Christ the Son of the Blessed One?” Then Jesus said: “I am; and YOU persons will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of power and coming with the clouds of heaven.” At this the high priest ripped his inner garments and said: “What further need do we have of witnesses? YOU heard the blasphemy. What is evident to YOU?” They all condemned him to be liable to death."

Once again we have Jesus being charged with blasphemy. Casually looking at it this scripture we may assume that his blasphemy was saying he was the Messiah (Christ) or that he was the Son of God or the Son of Man. However legally neither of these technically constituted blasphemy. So why is that what Jesus said that so enraged the High Priest that he said, "you heard the blasphemy". Well once again we may have Jesus making reference to the Divine Name when he said "I am."

In conclusion we can summarize the evidences that Jesus used the Divine Name that we have considered.

1.) Jesus' words that he had made God's Name known.
2.) Rabbinic and Jewish sources that said that Jesus worked magic by using God's Name.
3.) That Jesus was repeatedly charged with blasphemy which was literally using God's Name in any way.
4.) The possibility that Greek expression "I am" eigo eimi is a codified form of the Divine Name and a reference to the Septuagint rendering of Exodus 3:14.